quot;, you literally show "if the statement is true for $n=k$, then the statement is true for $n=k+1quot;[^1]. So, we are proving a **property**. ### Climbing a ladder There are two steps to climbing a ladder[^2]: 1. Somehow, we need to get on the ladder. 2. Once on a rung of the ladder, we need to be able to get to the next rung. Consider an example. Let us try and prove the following: $1 + 2 + \dots + n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2} , \;\;\;\; \forall n \geq 1$ We can quickly prove it for several cases by simply let $n=1$, $n=2$, $n=3$, and so on. With that said, we can actually treat this situation rather arbitrarily. Note that we are trying to prove a property, and that property is the equality. Instead let us consider a **property**, $P$, where $P$ depends on (is a function of) $n$, where $n$ is the positive integers. Our goal is now to prove: $P(n), \;\;\;\; \forall n \geq 1$ So, referring back to our ladder, we can note that proving $P(n)$ takes the same format: * To start we need to get on the first rung of the ladder. This consists of proving that $P(1)$ is true. * Then we want to prove that if we are on any given rung, we can always get to the next one. Note that this is a *property*! ### Official Steps Formally, we can state our steps as follows: * Step 1: Prove that $P(1)$ is true. (**Basis Step**) * Step 2: Assume $P(k)$ is true, then prove $P(k+1)$ is true. (**Induction Step**) We can put that into practice as follows. We can start with our basis step. **Basis Step** We simply need to prove that our equality holds for $n=1$: $P(1): \;\;\;\;\; 1 = \frac{n(n+1)}{2} = \frac{2}{2} = 1$ Great, we have proved our basis step. This is generally the easy part. **Induction Step** We now need to show how we get from one rung of the ladder to the next. How will we do this? We will actually *assume* that our property is true for $n=k$; in other words, we assume that $P(k)$ is true. Then, armed with this assumption, we will try and *deduce* that our property *must be true* for $n=k+1$. In other words, we want to prove the property: > *If* $P(k)$ is true, *then* $P(k+1)$ *must be true*. So, here is our assumption: $P(k): \;\;\;\;\; 1 + 2 + \dots + k= \frac{k(k+1)}{2}$ Again, we are simply assuming that the first $k$ things obey this equality. We now want to prove that $P(k+1)$ is true, *in light of* this assumption! This is incredibly crucial to understand. We are in a sense providing ourselves with extra information via this assumption. On it's own, we do not know if $P(k)$ is officially true. But, we are *assuming* that it is and then working to see if, given that assumption, $P(k+1)$ must be true as well. If so, we will have proved a general property-namely the property that if you are on one rung of the ladder you can always get to the next rung! Note that this inductive assumption is often called the **induction hypothesis**. Let us actually work to prove this: $P(k+1): \;\;\;\;\; 1 + 2 + \dots + k+ (k+1)= \frac{(k+1)((k+1)+1)}{2}$ We can now *use our inductive assumption*, since the first $k$ terms on the left are equal to $P(k)$: $P(k+1): \;\;\;\;\; \overbrace{1 + 2 + \dots + k}^{P(k)} + (k+1)= \frac{(k+1)((k+1)+1)}{2}$ $\frac{k(k+1)}{2} + (k+1)= \frac{(k+1)((k+1)+1)}{2}$ Now, using a bit of algebra: $\frac{k^2 + k + 2k+ 2}{2} = \frac{k^2 + k + 2k+ 2}{2}$ Hence, we have just proved $P(k+1)$ to be true, *under the assumption* that $P(k)$ is true. ### High level Let us now take a step back for a moment and reflect on what we have just done: * We started by proving the *basis step*, namely that $P(1)$ is true. This allowed us to actually get onto the ladder. * We then proved the property that *if* $P(k)$ is true, *then* $P(k+1)$ must also be true. To do this we *assumed* that $P(k)$ was true and utilized this in proving that $P(k+1)$ must then also be true. * We then use these two properties to claim that our equality is true for all values of $n$. ### When we can't get on the ladder (prove the basis case) A good example that helps internalize why the basis case is so important is below[^3]. It shows how there are certainly cases where we can prove the induction step, but there is no basis case where it is true. So, suppose that we wish to prove: $n=n+1$ for all (positive) integers $n$. We will purposefully omit the base case. Our induction hypothesis is: $P(k): \;\;\;\; k = k+1$ Now, assuming that this is true, we now wish to show that it will also be true for $k+1$: $P(k+1): \;\;\;\; (k+1) = (k+1)+1$ $k+1 = (k+1)+1$ Note that on the right hand side we have $(k+1)$; we can make use of our assumption (induction hypothesis) here. That stated that $k = k+1$. So, we can plug $k$ in for $k+1$: $k+1 = (k)+1 = k+ 1$ And we have proven our induction step. The problem is that there is no base case for which it is true! This means that we have *no way of getting onto the ladder*. ### Recursion and Induction A good example of using a recursive relation to prove a more general property is [here](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/536404/proof-by-induction-for-a-recursive-sequence-and-a-formula). [^1]: [Third comment on this question](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2738115/the-assumption-in-proof-by-induction) [^2]: [Intro via Trefor Bazett](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GdM_iA1Zek4) [^3]: [No basis case is true](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/627969/induction-without-a-base-case/627993)